I'm not sure what to conclude from this data, but I've just looked through the 4 gospels to identify the occasions on which Jesus was offered wine to drink, in one form or another.
It seems that he was offered wine 4 times. He refused it the first time, we're not told what happened on the second and third times, but he drank it the fourth time. On the first occasion, the wine was mixed with gall (an analgesic); on the other three times it was soured wine (wine vinegar).
Anyway:
- Before he was hung on the cross, he was offered and refused wine with gall (Matthew 27:34; Mark 15:23)
- Hung on the cross, the Roman soldiers taunted him, and part of their taunt was offering him sour wine (Luke 23:36)
- Darkness fell, and Jesus cried out that God had abandoned him. He was offered sour wine on a sponge. We are not told if he drank it. (Matthew 27:48; Mark 15:36).
- Jesus cried out loudly that “ it is finished”, but before he breathed his last he was given, and accepted, a drink of sour wine (John 19:30).
Any suggestions on the significance of these details in the crucifixion narratives?
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Did you get any further on
Did you get any further on this?...
Afraid not
No, I just parked it to keep thinking on. If you have any thoughts, do share them!
I was just thinking about
I was just thinking about Matthew 27:45-56 for a meditation on Friday. It looks as if there is some fulfilment of Ps 69:21 going on (as another key suffering psalm alongside Ps 22). But it's not very clear whether it is intended to be kind or cruel in this case (and possibly it has different significance in its various occurrences across the gospels).
In Mt 27:48 it is sandwiched between references to calling Elijah. Those watching think Jesus has got to the point where he's had enough and needs to call on Elijah for help (Eloi sounding like Elijah). In contrast, we know that Jesus is trusting God (given the rest of Ps 22) even in the deepest suffering. And he's already spoken of the need to drink the cup of his father's anger.
So I think v48 can be explained as misguided kindness that fails to see the significance of Jesus' death. He is drinking the cup of his father's anger. He doesn't therefore need anything else to drink.
Then there's the tombs opening and holy people rising to consider...
Like it
The Psalm 69 reference is clear, yes. I like the link to Psalm 22, and the cup of wrath. I suppose my question would be why, if he is drinking that cup, is this articulated as "I thirst".
My suggestion on that would
My suggestion on that would be that the gospel writers see this differently. It is only in John that Jesus says he is thirsty, and there John explicitly says this was to fulfil Scripture (presumably to fulfil the suffering of Ps 22 and 69).
Helpful
Whereas in Matthew's Gospel, Jesus cries out in desolation. The onlookers think he's calling for help and offer him a drink. The reality is that he's crying out because he knows there is no help, because he's taking a drink.
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