The sins of the whole world II

Wed, 27/09/2006 - 12:36 -- James Oakley

Picking up, again on this CHN article. The Bible is quite clear that it’s a fair question. Jesus did die for the sins of the whole world. John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life”.Just a small exegetical observation. Possibly not the best verse to establish Amyraldism, given that the word “whole” isn’t there.

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matthew's picture
Submitted by matthew on

Agreed. For "whole world", you have to go to 1 Jn 2.2

matthew the 97-pointer


safetygirl's picture
Submitted by safetygirl on

But isn't the 'world' in John's gospel used to refer to all of God's creation, both good and evil?

i.e. 'world' implies whole

James Oakley's picture
Submitted by James Oakley on

Thank you Matthew for pointing me to a (Johanine) text where the noun world is attributed with the adjective whole.

Thank you Safetygirl for that vital piece of Johanine semantics. [I certainly think world has connotations of evil human society; not so sure the good bits of God's creation are connoted in John. But you may well be right - I'm no expert!]

And, I ought to have said, thank you Gordon C for the CHN articles that I find very perceptive and helpful, and for your hard service in writing longer pieces too.

Having said all which, I need to do some work on John 12:19. ;-)

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