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 —  James Oakley

Picking up, again on this CHN article. The Bible is quite clear that it’s a fair question. Jesus did die for the sins of the whole world. John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life”.Just a small exegetical observation. Possibly not the best verse to establish Amyraldism, given that the word “whole” isn’t there.

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Submitted by matthew on Wed, 27/09/2006 - 15:36 Permalink

Agreed. For "whole world", you have to go to 1 Jn 2.2

matthew the 97-pointer

:-)

Submitted by safetygirl on Thu, 28/09/2006 - 00:28 Permalink

But isn't the 'world' in John's gospel used to refer to all of God's creation, both good and evil?

i.e. 'world' implies whole

Submitted by James Oakley on Thu, 28/09/2006 - 08:09 Permalink

Thank you Matthew for pointing me to a (Johanine) text where the noun world is attributed with the adjective whole.

Thank you Safetygirl for that vital piece of Johanine semantics. [I certainly think world has connotations of evil human society; not so sure the good bits of God's creation are connoted in John. But you may well be right - I'm no expert!]

And, I ought to have said, thank you Gordon C for the CHN articles that I find very perceptive and helpful, and for your hard service in writing longer pieces too.

Having said all which, I need to do some work on John 12:19. ;-)

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