The sins of the whole world II
Wed, 27/09/2006 - 11:36 — James
Picking up, again on this CHN article. The Bible is quite clear that it’s a fair question. Jesus did die for the sins of the whole world. John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life”.Just a small exegetical observation. Possibly not the best verse to establish Amyraldism, given that the word “whole” isn’t there.
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Comments
Agreed. For "whole world", you have to go to 1 Jn 2.2
matthew the 97-pointer
:-)
But isn't the 'world' in John's gospel used to refer to all of God's creation, both good and evil?
i.e. 'world' implies whole
Thank you Matthew for pointing me to a (Johanine) text where the noun world is attributed with the adjective whole.
Thank you Safetygirl for that vital piece of Johanine semantics. [I certainly think world has connotations of evil human society; not so sure the good bits of God's creation are connoted in John. But you may well be right - I'm no expert!]
And, I ought to have said, thank you Gordon C for the CHN articles that I find very perceptive and helpful, and for your hard service in writing longer pieces too.
Having said all which, I need to do some work on John 12:19. ;-)
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